On Complexes
Why is it, that the more deeply you probe a subject, the more you find that it is the simplest of concepts that befuddle you?
Two years of A Level Economics and one year of S Level, and I can't even get my head around economic efficiency. It's S Level Welfare Economics that's done it. Most frustrating.
Right, I suppose I'll just open this up to persons unknown, shall I?
Economic efficiency (as we are taught) is apparently made up of productive efficiency (lowest cost of production, AC=MC, maximum output for a given input etc) and allocative efficiency (P=MC, goods most highly valued by consumers produced, P=MU). Notice how only A Level Economics seems to be concerned with these terms.
Everyone else seems to use the concept of Pareto optimality (no one can be made better off unless someone else is made worse off, MRT=MRS, MSC=MSB, etc). Apparently A Level Economics reconciles this by making productive efficiency (PE) + allocative efficiency (AE) = Pareto optimal, which seems fair enough.
The problem comes when you get a PE monopolist. Clearly not Pareto optimal. What if you make him practice marginal cost pricing? AE + PE, but he's lost revenue, so that's not Pareto optimal either. So maybe Pareto optimality is only achieved under perfect competition.
After all, the First Optimality Theorem states "a private property competitive equilibrium, where it exists, is Pareto optimal." So far so good. Pareto optimality only achievable under competition.
So then we are told that every point on the Production Possibility Curve (PPC) is PE but only one point is AE. In other words only one point is Pareto optimal.
But surely that contradicts the First Theorem. After all, there is no unique Pareto optimum. Competition produces an infinite combination of Pareto optimal points. Which gives rise to the Utility Possibility Frontier, which is a locus of all utility combinations, all of them Pareto optimal. That is the whole basis of welfare economics: to attempt to achieve the impossible, to reach the "bliss point", the most Pareto optimal of Pareto optima. How is that possible if there is only one Pareto optimal outcome?
My, what a long rant. Either I'm wrong, or A Level Economics is wrong, or I'm missing something.
Why is it, that the more deeply you probe a subject, the more you find that it is the simplest of concepts that befuddle you?
Two years of A Level Economics and one year of S Level, and I can't even get my head around economic efficiency. It's S Level Welfare Economics that's done it. Most frustrating.
Right, I suppose I'll just open this up to persons unknown, shall I?
Economic efficiency (as we are taught) is apparently made up of productive efficiency (lowest cost of production, AC=MC, maximum output for a given input etc) and allocative efficiency (P=MC, goods most highly valued by consumers produced, P=MU). Notice how only A Level Economics seems to be concerned with these terms.
Everyone else seems to use the concept of Pareto optimality (no one can be made better off unless someone else is made worse off, MRT=MRS, MSC=MSB, etc). Apparently A Level Economics reconciles this by making productive efficiency (PE) + allocative efficiency (AE) = Pareto optimal, which seems fair enough.
The problem comes when you get a PE monopolist. Clearly not Pareto optimal. What if you make him practice marginal cost pricing? AE + PE, but he's lost revenue, so that's not Pareto optimal either. So maybe Pareto optimality is only achieved under perfect competition.
After all, the First Optimality Theorem states "a private property competitive equilibrium, where it exists, is Pareto optimal." So far so good. Pareto optimality only achievable under competition.
So then we are told that every point on the Production Possibility Curve (PPC) is PE but only one point is AE. In other words only one point is Pareto optimal.
But surely that contradicts the First Theorem. After all, there is no unique Pareto optimum. Competition produces an infinite combination of Pareto optimal points. Which gives rise to the Utility Possibility Frontier, which is a locus of all utility combinations, all of them Pareto optimal. That is the whole basis of welfare economics: to attempt to achieve the impossible, to reach the "bliss point", the most Pareto optimal of Pareto optima. How is that possible if there is only one Pareto optimal outcome?
My, what a long rant. Either I'm wrong, or A Level Economics is wrong, or I'm missing something.
